I purchased a home a little over one year prior to getting married. During that time, the property increased in value. Over the term of the marriage (9.2 years), it then decreased in value. I resided in the house and continued to make payments with my separate funds subsequently to date of separation. I then sold the house about 1.5 years after date of separation and the value of the property increased in value during that time, but still decreased in value from the date of marriage to both date of separation and date of sale. Can a Moore Marsden calculation be used in this situation, which is doesn’t appear it can be and if not, how best to determine property division. I have all the breakdown of SP & CP principal payments, etc. Also, the house was never refinanced which helps a little bit from a simplicity perspective.